CCNA3 v6.0 Final Exam Answers Option C 100%

CCNA3 Scaling Networks v6.0 Final Exam Answers Option C

1. Which technological factor determines the impact of a failure domain?

the number of layers of the hierarchical network

the number of users on the access layer

the role of the malfunctioning device*

the forwarding rate of the switches used on the access layer

2. What is the function of STP in a scalable network?

It decreases the size of the failure domain to contain the impact of failures.

It protects the edge of the enterprise network from malicious activity.

It disables redundant paths to eliminate Layer 2 loops.*

It combines multiple switch trunk links to act as one logical link for increased bandwidth.

3. Which characteristic would most influence a network design engineer to select a multilayer switch over a Layer 2 switch?

ability to build a routing table*

ability to aggregate multiple ports for maximum data throughput

ability to provide power to directly-attached devices and the switch itself

ability to have multiple forwarding paths through the switched network based on VLAN number(s)

4. What are two reasons to install a single 48-port fixed configuration switch, rather than two 24-port fixed configuration switches, in a wiring closet that supports two classrooms? (Choose two.)

more power provided to each port

more ports available for end devices*

higher uplink speeds

reduced power and space requirements*

reduced number of VLANs/broadcast domains

5. What are two requirements when using out-of-band configuration of a Cisco IOS network device? (Choose two.)

HTTP access to the device

a terminal emulation client*

Telnet or SSH access to the device

a direct connection to the console or AUX port*

a connection to an operational network interface on the device

6. Which step can be taken to ensure that a switch added to the network does not overwrite the VLAN databases on existing switches in the same VTP domain?

Change the VTP mode to client.

Reset the switch VTP revision number to 0.*

Delete any configured VLANs and reboot the switch.

Erase the startup configuration and reboot the switch.

7. A network administrator is planning to add a new switch to the network. What should the network administrator do to ensure the new switch exchanges VTP information with the other switches in the VTP domain?

Configure the correct VTP domain name and password on the new switch.*

Associate all ports of the new switch to a VLAN that is not VLAN 1.

Configure the VLANs on the new switch.

Configure all ports on the new switch to access mode.

8. An administrator was troubleshooting a router-on-a-stick topology and concluded that the problem was related to the configuration of VLANs on the router subinterfaces. Which two commands can the administrator use in the router to identify the problem? (Choose two.)

show controllers

show ip interface*

show ip protocols

show running-config*

show vlan

9. Refer to the exhibit.

The configuration shows commands entered by a network administrator for inter-VLAN routing. However, host PCA cannot communicate with PCB. Which part of the inter-VLAN configuration causes the problem?


port mode on the two switch FastEthernet ports

VLAN configuration*

router port configuration

10. Refer to the exhibit. Switch SW-A is to be used as a temporary replacement for another switch in the VTP Student domain. What two pieces of information are indicated from the exhibited output? (Choose two.)

The other switches in the domain can be running either VTP version 1 or 2.

There is a risk that the switch may cause incorrect VLAN information to be sent through the domain.*

VTP will block frame forwarding on at least one redundant trunk port that is configured on this switch.

VLAN configuration changes made on this switch will be sent to other devices in the VTP domain.

This switch will update its VLAN configuration when VLAN changes are made on a VTP server in the same domain.*

11. Refer to the exhibit.

The network administrator configures both switches as displayed. However, host C is unable to ping host D and host E is unable to ping host F. What action should the administrator take to enable this communication?

Include a router in the topology.

Associate hosts A and B with VLAN 10 instead of VLAN 1.

Remove the native VLAN from the trunk.

Configure either trunk port in the dynamic desirable mode.*

Add the switchport nonegotiate command to the configuration of SW2.

12. What is a characteristic of spanning tree?

It is enabled by default on Cisco switches.*

It has a TTL mechanism that works at Layer 2.

It prevents propagation of Layer 2 broadcast frames.

It is used to discover information about an adjacent Cisco device.

13. Refer to the exhibit.

All the displayed switches are Cisco 2960 switches with the same default priority and operating at the same bandwidth. Which three ports will be STP designated ports? (Choose three.)







14. A set of switches is being connected in a LAN topology. Which STP bridge priority value will make it least likely for the switch to be selected as the root?





15. Refer to the exhibit.

Which switch will be elected the root bridge and which switch will place a port in blocking mode? (Choose two.)

SW1 will become the root bridge.

SW2 will become the root bridge.

SW2 will get a port blocked.

SW4 will get a port blocked.*

SW3 will become the root bridge.*

SW4 will become the root bridge.

16. Which statement is true about the states of the IEEE 802.1D Spanning Tree Protocol?

Ports are manually configured to be in the forwarding state.

Ports listen and learn before going into the forwarding state.*

Ports must be blocked before they can be placed in the disabled state.

It takes 15 seconds for a port to go from blocking to forwarding.

17. Refer to the exhibit.

What are the possible port roles for ports A, B, C, and D in this RSTP-enabled network?

alternate, root, designated, root

designated, root, alternate, root

alternate, designated, root, root*

designated, alternate, root, root

18. Refer to the exhibit.

What are two results of issuing the displayed commands on S1, S2, and S3? (Choose two.)

S1 will automatically adjust the priority to be the lowest.*

S1 will automatically adjust the priority to be the highest.

S3 can be elected as a secondary bridge.

S2 can become root bridge if S3 fails.

S2 can become root bridge if S1 fails.*

19. When the show spanning-tree vlan 33 command is issued on a switch, three ports are shown in the forwarding state. In which two port roles could these interfaces function while in the forwarding state? (Choose two.)






20. Which is a characteristic of EtherChannel?

EtherChannel uses physical ports that have been upgraded to provide a faster connection.

STP will not block redundant EtherChannel bundles between two switches.

STP treats all interfaces in a bundle as a single logical link.*

EtherChannel configuration is applied to each physical port.

21. A network administrator has configured an EtherChannel between two switches that are connected via four trunk links. If the physical interface for one of the trunk links changes to a down state, what happens to the EtherChannel?

The EtherChannel will transition to a down state.

Spanning Tree Protocol will recalculate the remaining trunk links.

The EtherChannel will remain functional.*

Spanning Tree Protocol will transition the failed physical interface into forwarding mode.

22. What are two load-balancing methods in the EtherChannel technology? (Choose two.)

combination of source port and IP to destination port and IP

source IP to destination IP*

source port to destination port

combination of source MAC and IP to destination MAC and IP

source MAC to destination MAC*

23. Which mode configuration setting would allow formation of an EtherChannel link between switches SW1 and SW2 without sending negotiation traffic?

SW1: on
SW2: on*

SW1: desirable
SW2: desirable

SW1: auto
SW2: auto
trunking enabled on both switches

SW1: auto
SW2: auto
PortFast enabled on both switches

SW1: passive
SW2: active

24. Which two parameters must match on the ports of two switches to create a PAgP EtherChannel between the switches? (Choose two.)

MAC address


VLAN information*

PAgP mode

port ID

25. A network administrator is analyzing first-hop router redundancy protocols. What is a characteristic of VRRPv3?

VRRPv3 is Cisco proprietary.

It supports IPv6 and IPv4 addressing.*

It works together with HSRP.

It allows load balancing between routers.

26. Refer to the exhibit.

A network administrator would like to implement dynamic routing within a small network environment as shown in the exhibit. Which routing protocol would be a viable solution?





27. What is a key distinction between classful and classless routing protocols?

Classful routing protocols are better suited for implementation in discontiguous networks.

Classful routing protocols do not send subnet mask information in their routing updates.*

Classless routing protocols are not scalable.

Classless routing protocols do not allow for route summarization.

28. What does the SPF algorithm consider to be the best path to a network?

The path with the least number of hops.

The path with the smallest delays.

The path that includes the fastest cumulative bandwidth links.*

The path that includes the fastest single bandwidth link.

29. Refer to the exhibit.

A network administrator has configured OFPF in the topology as shown. What is the preferred path to get from the LAN network that is connected to R1 to the LAN network that is connected to R7?





30. Which protocol does EIGRP use for the transportation of EIGRP packets?

User Datagram Protocol

Reliable Transport Protocol*

Real-Time Transport Protocol

Transmission Control Protocol

31. Which two statements are correct about EIGRP acknowledgment packets? (Choose two.)

The packets are sent in response to hello packets.

The packets are used to discover neighbors that are connected on an interface.

The packets are sent as unicast.*

The packets require confirmation.

The packets are unreliable.*

32. What EIGRP packet type is used by EIGRP routers to discover neighbors on directly connected links?





33. Which statement describes the autonomous system number used in EIGRP configuration on a Cisco router?

It carries the geographical information of the organization.

It functions as a process ID in the operation of the router.*

It is a globally unique autonomous system number that is assigned by IANA.

It identifies the ISP that provides the connection to network of the organization.

34. What two values must match between two EIGRP directly connected neighbors to establish and maintain an adjacency? (Choose two.)

metric parameters*

autonomous system number*

router ID

Area ID

hello timers

35. Refer to the exhibit.

Which two conclusions can be derived from the output? (Choose two.)

There is one feasible successor to network*

The network can be reached through

The reported distance to network is 41024256.

The neighbor meets the feasibility condition to reach the network.*

Router R1 has two successors to the network.

36. Which command is used to display the bandwidth of an interface on an EIGRP-enabled router?

show ip route

show interfaces*

show ip protocols

show ip interface brief

37. An EIGRP router loses the route to a network. Its topology table contains two feasible successors to the same network. What action will the router take?

The DUAL algorithm is recomputed to find an alternate route.

The router uses the default route.

The best alternative backup route is immediately inserted into the routing table.*

The router will query neighbors for an alternate route.

38. A network engineer examining the operation of EIGRP on a router notices that one particular route is in an active state. What can the engineer determine about this route?

Data packets to be sent to the specified network will be forwarded on this route.

EIGRP query messages are being sent to other routers requesting paths to this network.*

The Diffusing Update Algorithm has determined a successor and a feasible successor for this route.

The EIGRP processes are still calculating the administrative distance for this route.

39. Refer to the exhibit.

What will Router1 do if it receives packets that are destined to network 2001:db8:11:100::/64?

drop the packets*

forward the packets to the gateway of last resort

send the packets out interface GigabitEthernet 0/0

send the packets out interface Serial 0/0/0

40. How are externally learned EIGRP routes identified in the routing table?


O1 E



41. A network administrator is configuring EIGRP load balancing with the commands:

Router(config)# router eigrp 1
Router(config-router)# variance 3
Router(config-router)# end

What is a direct result of entering these commands?

Up to three equal cost routes to the same destination can be installed in the routing table.

Up to three unequal cost routes to the same destination can be installed in the routing table.

No matter whether the metric is equal or unequal, up to three routes to the same destination can be installed in the routing table.

Any feasible successor routes to the same destination network with a metric, equal to or less than 3 times that of the successor, will be installed in the routing table.*

42. By default, how many equal cost routes to the same destination can be installed in the routing table of a Cisco router?





43. When should EIGRP automatic summarization be turned off?

when a router has not discovered a neighbor within three minutes

when a router has more than three active interfaces

when a network contains discontiguous network addresses*

when a router has less than five active interfaces

when a network addressing scheme uses VLSM

44. What is a function of OSPF hello packets?

to send specifically requested link-state records

to discover neighbors and build adjacencies between them*

to ensure database synchronization between routers

to request specific link-state records from neighbor routers

45. What is the final operational state that will form between an OSPF DR and a DROTHER once the routers reach convergence?





46. A router needs to be configured to route within OSPF Area 0. Which two commands are required to accomplish this? (Choose two.)

RouterA(config)# router ospf 0

RouterA(config)# router ospf 1*

RouterA(config-router)# network 0

RouterA(config-router)# network area 0*

RouterA(config-router)# network 0

47. How is the router ID for an OSPFv3 router determined?

the highest IPv6 address on an active interface

the lowest MAC address on an active interface

the highest IPv4 address on an active interface*

the highest EUI-64 ID on an active interface

48. Refer to the exhibit.

R1 and R2 are OSPFv3 neighbors. Which address would R1 use as the next hop for packets that are destined for the Internet?





49. What does an OSPF area contain?

routers that share the same router ID

routers whose SPF trees are identical

routers that have the same link-state information in their LSDBs*

routers that share the same process ID

50. What are the only two roles that permit an OSPF router to be configured for summarization? (Choose two.)

backbone router

internal router

designated router

area border router*

autonomous system boundary router*

51. Which routing table descriptor is used to identify the OSPF networks advertised by type 1 LSAs?

O E2

O E1



52. What are two features of OSPF interarea route summarization? (Choose two.)

ASBRs perform all OSPF summarization.

Routes within an area are summarized by the ABR.*

ABRs advertise the summarized routes into the backbone.*

Type 3 and type 5 LSAs are used to propagate summarized routes by default.

Route summarization results in high network traffic and router overhead.

53. Refer to the exhibit.

What are three resulting DR and BDR elections for the given topology? (Choose three.)

R2 is BDR for segment A.*

R4 is BDR for segment B.*

R5 is DR for segment B.*

R1 is DR for segment A.

R3 is DR for segment B.

R3 is DBR for segment B.

54. What is one reason to use the ip ospf priority command when the OSPF routing protocol is in use?

to activate the OSPF neighboring process

to influence the DR/BDR election process*

to provide a backdoor for connectivity during the convergence process

to streamline and speed up the convergence process

55. Which statement describes a characteristic of OSPF external routes?​

The difference between type 1 and type 2 is in the way the cost of the route is being calculated.*

Type 1 and type 2 external routes in IPv4 networks are represented in the routing table by EX1 and EX2, respectively.

A type 2 route is always preferred over a type 1 route for the same destination.

The cost of a type 1 route is always the external cost, regardless of the interior cost to reach that route.

56. Refer to the exhibit.

A network administrator has configured OSPFv2 on the two Cisco routers as shown. PC1 is unable to communicate with PC2. What should be done to fix the problem?

Add the network area 0 command to router R1 and remove the network area 0 command.

Add the passive-interface S0/0 command to router R1.

Add the network area 0 command to router R1 and remove the network area 0 command.

Add the network area 0 command to router R1 and remove the network area 0 command.*

57. Which command can be used by an administrator to display a list of interfaces that are enabled for OSPFv3?

show ipv6 ospf​

show ipv6 neighbor​

show ipv6 route ospf

show ipv6 protocols​*

58. Match the order in which the link-state routing process occurs on a router. (Not all options are used.)

Each router learns about its own directly connected networks. => Step 1

Each router is responsible for “saying hello” to its neighbors on directly connected networks. => Step 2

Each router builds a Link-State Packet (LSP) containing the state of each directly connected link => Step 3

Each router floods the LSP to all neighbors, who then store all LSPs received in a database => Step 4

Each router uses the database to construct a complete map of the topology and computes the best => Step 5

59. Match the description to the term. (Not all options are used.)

Place the options in the following order:

adjacency database => This is where the details of the neighboring routers can be found. 
Shortest Path First => This is the algorithm used by OSPF.
Single-area OSPF => All the routers are in the backbone area.
– not scored – 
link-state database => This is where you can find the topology table.
– not scored –

60. Match the order of precedence to the process logic that an OSPFv3 network router goes through in choosing a router ID. (Not all options are used.)

The router displays a console message to configure the router ID manually. => priority 4

The router uses the highest configured IPv4 address of an active interface. => priority 3

The router uses the highest configured IPv4 address of a loopback interface. => prority 2

The router uses the explicitly configured router ID if any. => priority 1

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